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    Free CompTIA A+ Core 1 Sample Questions

    35 free sample questions from our bank of 345+, covering every exam domain, with answers and detailed explanations. Updated October 2026.

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    Domain 1: Mobile devices

    Subdomain 1.4: Troubleshooting

    1.What is the effect of performing a soft reset on a frozen smartphone?

    1. A.The phone erases all personal data and settings and returns to its original out-of-the-box software state
    2. B.The device restarts through a power cycle while personal data, apps, and settings remain intact
    3. C.The operating system is reflashed from a downloaded image, which replaces every installed app with its default
    4. D.The cellular carrier profile is wiped, which forces the phone to be re-provisioned before calls can be placed
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: B — The device restarts through a power cycle while personal data, apps, and settings remain intact

    • A. Incorrect. Erasing data and restoring original settings describes a factory reset, which is a last-resort step.
    • B. Correct. A soft reset is just a restart or forced restart, which clears frozen processes without touching stored user data.
    • C. Incorrect. Reflashing an operating system image is a firmware restore and is far more drastic than a soft reset.
    • D. Incorrect. A restart does not remove the carrier profile, and the phone reconnects to the network automatically afterward.

    Domain 1: Mobile Devices

    Subdomain 1.1: Given a scenario, monitor mobile device hardware and use appropriate replacement techniques.

    2.A technician is adding memory to a laptop that has an open SODIMM slot. The laptop is powered off, the AC adapter is unplugged, and the battery is removed. How should the new module be installed?

    1. A.Press the module straight down into the slot with both thumbs until the side clips snap over the notches
    2. B.Insert the module at roughly a 30-degree angle, then press it down until the retaining clips latch
    3. C.Slide the contacts into the slot, then tighten two thumbscrews that clamp the module against the motherboard
    4. D.Align the key notch with the slot and fasten the module with one small screw into a standoff beside it
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: B — Insert the module at roughly a 30-degree angle, then press it down until the retaining clips latch

    • A. Straight-down seating is how full-size desktop DIMMs go in, but SODIMM contacts must enter the slot at an angle first. Forcing it flat can crack the slot or bend the module.
    • B. SODIMMs slide in at an angle and are then pressed flat, where the side clips lock them in place. The key notch keeps the module from being inserted backward.
    • C. Thumbscrews are not used for laptop memory because the module is held by spring clips. Leaving it unlatched would cause intermittent boot and memory errors.
    • D. A single retaining screw is how an M.2 card is secured, not a SODIMM. A memory module relies on its side clips to stay seated.

    Subdomain 1.2: Compare and contrast accessories and connectivity options for mobile devices.

    3.Which approximate maximum range is typical for a standard Class 2 Bluetooth device such as a wireless headset?

    1. A.About 100 meters (330 feet)
    2. B.About 4 centimeters (1.5 inches)
    3. C.About 10 meters (33 feet)
    4. D.About 1 kilometer (3,280 feet)
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: C — About 10 meters (33 feet)

    • A. About 100 meters is the range of Class 1 devices such as industrial adapters, not a typical Class 2 headset.
    • B. About 4 centimeters is the working distance of NFC, a different technology, not Bluetooth.
    • C. About 10 meters is correct because Class 2 Bluetooth, used by most phones and headsets, reaches roughly 33 feet in open space.
    • D. About 1 kilometer is far beyond any standard Bluetooth class and would require a different long-range wireless technology.

    Subdomain 1.3: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and provide application support.

    4.Which statement correctly describes how a smartphone can still estimate its position when GPS satellite signals are weak, such as deep inside a large building?

    1. A.The accelerometer alone calculates absolute latitude and longitude by measuring how the phone has moved
    2. B.The phone's MDM server polls its IP address and reports the street address registered to the subscriber
    3. C.Cellular location services estimate position from the signal strength of several nearby cell towers
    4. D.The SIM card stores the last known GPS coordinates and replays them until the satellite signal returns
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: C — Cellular location services estimate position from the signal strength of several nearby cell towers

    • A. Incorrect. An accelerometer senses motion and can refine movement tracking, but without a known starting point it cannot produce absolute coordinates.
    • B. Incorrect. MDM enforces policy and can request location, but it does not look up a registered street address from an IP address to locate a phone.
    • C. Correct. Cellular location services compare signals from multiple towers to approximate where the phone is, which works indoors but is less precise than GPS.
    • D. Incorrect. A SIM stores subscriber identity data, not live or historical GPS coordinates, and it does not replay positions to the operating system.

    Domain 2: Networking

    Subdomain 2.1: Compare and contrast Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports, protocols, and their purposes.

    5.A developer is choosing a transport protocol for a live video-conferencing app in which a late packet is useless and should simply be skipped. Which protocol fits this requirement, and why?

    1. A.TCP, because retransmitting every lost segment guarantees each frame arrives in order, even if playback has to pause
    2. B.UDP, because it sends datagrams with no handshake or retransmission, keeping delay low for real-time audio and video
    3. C.TCP, because its three-way handshake lets each frame travel faster than datagrams that need no acknowledgment
    4. D.UDP, because it numbers every segment and requests resends of missing data so a call never has any gaps
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: B — UDP, because it sends datagrams with no handshake or retransmission, keeping delay low for real-time audio and video

    • A. TCP does retransmit lost segments, but waiting for resends causes stalls and delay that hurt a live call, so guaranteed delivery is the wrong priority here.
    • B. UDP is connectionless and has no handshake, acknowledgment or retransmission, so packets flow with minimal delay and a lost one is just skipped. That suits real-time voice and video.
    • C. The three-way handshake only sets up a TCP session and adds overhead; acknowledgments make TCP slower per frame, not faster than UDP.
    • D. Sequencing and resend requests are TCP features, not UDP features. UDP leaves loss handling to the application.

    Subdomain 2.2: Explain wireless networking technologies.

    6.A technician is tuning an access point in a quiet office with no neighboring networks. The 5 GHz band is nearly empty, and the goal is higher throughput for file transfers. What change fits best?

    1. A.Increase the 5 GHz channel width from 20 MHz to 80 MHz, accepting fewer available non-overlapping channels
    2. B.Decrease the 5 GHz channel width from 80 MHz to 20 MHz, which carries more data per second per client
    3. C.Move the 5 GHz radio onto channel 6, because wider channels are only available near the middle of the band
    4. D.Switch the radio to 2.4 GHz with a 160 MHz channel width, which the band supports for maximum speed
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: A — Increase the 5 GHz channel width from 20 MHz to 80 MHz, accepting fewer available non-overlapping channels

    • A. Correct. Wider channels carry more data, so 80 MHz raises throughput. The tradeoff is fewer non-overlapping channels and more exposure to interference, which is acceptable in a quiet office.
    • B. Incorrect. Narrowing a channel reduces the data it can carry, so it lowers peak throughput rather than raising it.
    • C. Incorrect. Channel 6 is a 2.4 GHz channel number and does not exist as a 5 GHz channel. Width is set independently of channel number.
    • D. Incorrect. The 2.4 GHz band is too narrow for 160 MHz channels. Only 5 GHz and 6 GHz offer widths that large.

    Subdomain 2.6: Given a scenario, configure basic wired/wireless small office/home office (SOHO) networks.

    7.Which of the following IPv4 addresses falls within a private address range defined for use inside SOHO networks?

    1. A.172.20.4.15
    2. B.172.32.1.5
    3. C.192.169.1.10
    4. D.11.0.0.5
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: A — 172.20.4.15

    • A. Correct. The private block 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 covers 172.20.4.15, so routers do not forward it across the public internet.
    • B. Incorrect. 172.32.1.5 sits just above the 172.16.0.0/12 private block, so it is a routable public address.
    • C. Incorrect. The private block is 192.168.0.0/16; 192.169.1.10 is outside it and is a public address.
    • D. Incorrect. 11.0.0.0/8 is not reserved for private use and is part of the public address space.

    Subdomain 2.3: Summarize services provided by networked hosts.

    8.After a security incident, an administrator finds that log timestamps from the servers and switches differ by several minutes, which makes it hard to line up events. What should the administrator do to fix this?

    1. A.Point every device at the same syslog server so its log entries are stamped with one shared clock automatically
    2. B.Create DHCP reservations for every server so each machine keeps the same address and a consistent time zone
    3. C.Configure every server and network device to synchronize its clock with the same NTP source on UDP port 123
    4. D.Install a spam gateway in front of the mail server so log entries are sorted by arrival time across devices
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: C — Configure every server and network device to synchronize its clock with the same NTP source on UDP port 123

    • A. A syslog server stores whatever timestamps the devices supply. It does not correct or synchronize their clocks, so the differences would remain.
    • B. DHCP reservations keep a device's IP address stable. They have no effect on the accuracy of its clock.
    • C. Network Time Protocol synchronizes device clocks to a common source over UDP port 123. With all devices on the same NTP source, log timestamps line up and events can be correlated.
    • D. A spam gateway filters unwanted email before it reaches the mail server. It does not manage timekeeping on servers or switches.

    Subdomain 2.5: Compare and contrast common networking hardware devices.

    9.A small office receives a single public IP address from its ISP, and twelve computers must all reach the internet through it. Which device translates the private addresses and forwards traffic between the LAN and the ISP network?

    1. A.An unmanaged switch placed behind the modem, which hands every computer its own unique public address from the ISP pool
    2. B.A router performing NAT, which rewrites private source addresses to the one public address and forwards packets onward
    3. C.A wireless access point, which shares the single public address among wireless clients by bridging each of them to the ISP
    4. D.A patch panel mounted in the rack, which maps each wall jack to a public address through its punch-down terminations
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: B — A router performing NAT, which rewrites private source addresses to the one public address and forwards packets onward

    • A. An unmanaged switch only forwards Ethernet frames by MAC address inside one network. It cannot request or hand out public addresses from the ISP, so computers behind it would still lack internet access.
    • B. A router with NAT is correct because it connects the private LAN to the ISP network and rewrites private source addresses to the single public address. It also keeps a translation table so replies return to the right computer.
    • C. An access point bridges wireless clients onto the wired LAN at the data link layer. It does not perform address translation or route between the LAN and the ISP network.
    • D. A patch panel is passive cabling hardware that terminates in-wall cable runs. It has no processing ability, so it cannot map jacks to IP addresses or translate anything.

    Subdomain 2.5: Compare and contrast common networking hardware devices.

    10.Which PoE standard supplies up to 30 W of power at the switch port, a level suited to PTZ cameras and dual-band access points?

    1. A.IEEE 802.3af (PoE)
    2. B.IEEE 802.3at (PoE+)
    3. C.IEEE 802.3bt Type 3
    4. D.IEEE 802.3bt Type 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: B — IEEE 802.3at (PoE+)

    • A. 802.3af tops out at about 15.4 W per port. That covers basic VoIP phones but falls short of the 30 W level in the question.
    • B. 802.3at, known as PoE+, supplies up to 30 W per port at the switch. It is the standard commonly used for PTZ cameras and higher-powered access points.
    • C. 802.3bt Type 3 delivers up to 60 W per port, which is double what the question describes. It is aimed at devices such as multi-radio access points and thin clients.
    • D. 802.3bt Type 4 delivers up to 100 W per port, well above 30 W. It targets heavy loads such as LED lighting and large displays.

    Subdomain 2.7: Compare and contrast internet connection types, network types, and their characteristics.

    11.A family's remote cabin has no telephone line, cable TV, or cellular coverage, so they install a dish aimed at an orbiting satellite for internet access. Which limitation should they expect during video calls and online games?

    1. A.Shared neighborhood bandwidth that slows every household on the same coaxial segment during the evening
    2. B.Noticeable latency because every signal travels up to a satellite in orbit and back down to a ground station
    3. C.Speeds that fall sharply the farther the cabin sits from the provider's telephone central office building
    4. D.A required line-of-sight link to a tower mounted on a nearby hill or rooftop that the provider operates
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: B — Noticeable latency because every signal travels up to a satellite in orbit and back down to a ground station

    • A. Shared coaxial segments are a characteristic of cable internet, not satellite. A satellite dish does not connect to any neighborhood coax node, so evening congestion on a shared cable segment does not apply here.
    • B. Correct. Signals must travel to a satellite in orbit and back, which adds delay (high latency) that is especially noticeable in real-time uses such as video calls and gaming, even when raw bandwidth is acceptable.
    • C. Distance from the central office limiting speed is a DSL trait that comes from signal loss on copper telephone wire. Satellite service does not use the telephone line at all.
    • D. A line-of-sight link to a nearby ground tower describes a wireless internet service provider (WISP). A satellite dish instead points at a satellite in orbit.

    Subdomain 2.4: Explain common network configuration concepts.

    12.Which DNS record type tells sending mail servers which hosts accept email for a domain and ranks multiple servers with a preference value?

    1. A.A CNAME record, which lists alias names for the domain's mailboxes along with a priority number for each
    2. B.A TXT record, which carries a text string that senders read to locate the domain's mail hosts by priority
    3. C.An AAAA record, which lists IPv6 addresses for the domain's mailboxes along with a priority number for each
    4. D.An MX record, which lists mail server hostnames for the domain along with a priority number for each
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: D — An MX record, which lists mail server hostnames for the domain along with a priority number for each

    • A. A CNAME is an alias from one name to another; it has no priority field and is not used by senders to find the receiving mail servers.
    • B. A TXT record holds free-form text such as SPF or DKIM data; senders do not consult it to find or rank mail hosts.
    • C. An AAAA record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address and has no priority field; MX records are what point to mail hosts.
    • D. The mail exchanger (MX) record names the hosts that accept mail for the domain, and the lowest preference number is tried first, so it is correct.

    Subdomain 2.8: Explain networking tools and their purposes.

    13.Which task is a cable stripper used for when terminating twisted-pair network cable?

    1. A.Removing the outer jacket from the cable end to expose the twisted pairs without nicking wires
    2. B.Pressing wires into the slots of a 110 block while trimming the excess length of each conductor
    3. C.Compressing a modular plug's contacts onto the conductors so that the connector grips the cable
    4. D.Verifying that every wire pair maps to the correct pin by sending a signal through the cable
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: A — Removing the outer jacket from the cable end to expose the twisted pairs without nicking wires

    • A. Correct: a cable stripper scores and removes the outer jacket so the pairs are exposed, with an adjustable blade depth that avoids nicking the conductors.
    • B. Incorrect: seating and trimming wires on a 110 block is the job of a punchdown tool, not a stripper.
    • C. Incorrect: compressing a plug's contacts onto the wires is done by a crimper after the jacket has been stripped.
    • D. Incorrect: checking pin mapping by sending a signal through the wires is what a cable tester does.

    Domain 3: Hardware

    Subdomain 3.2: Summarize basic cable types and their connectors, features, and purposes.

    14.A user wants to connect a monitor to a laptop and carry both high-definition video and audio over a single cable. Which TWO connection types support this?(Select 2)

    1. A.HDMI
    2. B.DisplayPort
    3. C.VGA
    4. D.DVI-D
    5. E.eSATA
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answers: A, B — HDMI; DisplayPort

    • A. HDMI carries digital video and multichannel audio over one cable, so it fits the requirement.
    • B. DisplayPort carries digital video and audio over one cable, so it also meets the requirement.
    • C. VGA is an analog video-only interface; audio needs a separate cable.
    • D. DVI-D carries digital video only and has no audio support, so a separate audio cable is required.
    • E. eSATA is an external storage interface for drives and has nothing to do with video output.

    Subdomain 3.4: Compare and contrast storage devices.

    15.Which optical disc type holds the most data on a single-layer, single-sided disc?

    1. A.CD-R, about 700 MB
    2. B.DVD-R, about 4.7 GB
    3. C.DVD-RW, about 4.7 GB
    4. D.BD-R, about 25 GB
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: D — BD-R, about 25 GB

    • A. A CD-R holds roughly 700 MB, which is far less than any DVD or Blu-ray disc.
    • B. A single-layer DVD-R holds about 4.7 GB, which is about one-fifth of a Blu-ray disc.
    • C. A rewritable DVD-RW has the same 4.7 GB capacity as DVD-R. Rewritability does not add capacity.
    • D. A single-layer Blu-ray recordable disc holds about 25 GB because its blue-violet laser can read much smaller pits. That makes it the largest of the listed optical formats.

    Subdomain 3.1: Compare and contrast display components and attributes.

    16.A design studio buys monitors for color-critical photo editing, and several people often view the same screen from the side. Which LCD panel type is the best fit?

    1. A.IPS panel, because its liquid crystals rotate in the plane of the glass and keep color steady at wide side angles
    2. B.TN panel, because its twisted crystals give the fastest pixel response and the most consistent color across angles
    3. C.VA panel, because its vertically aligned crystals produce deep blacks and no color shift when viewed from the side
    4. D.Mini-LED backlit TN panel, because many dimming zones remove the color shift that TN crystals show at wide angles
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: A — IPS panel, because its liquid crystals rotate in the plane of the glass and keep color steady at wide side angles

    • A. Correct. In-plane switching rotates the crystals parallel to the glass, so color and brightness stay accurate at wide viewing angles, which is why IPS is the standard for photo and design work.
    • B. Incorrect. TN panels are fast and cheap, but their twisted crystals cause strong color and brightness shift when viewed off-center, so they are poor for shared color-critical work.
    • C. Incorrect. VA panels offer high contrast and deep blacks, but color and contrast still shift noticeably when viewed from the side, so they trail IPS for color accuracy.
    • D. Incorrect. Backlight dimming zones improve contrast, not viewing angle. A TN panel behind a Mini-LED backlight still shifts color off-axis because the crystal behavior is unchanged.

    Subdomain 3.3: Compare and contrast RAM characteristics.

    17.A small business runs a database server that must stay online for months. After a crash, the logs pointed to single-bit memory corruption. The owner wants RAM that can detect and correct this kind of fault automatically. Which should the technician choose?

    1. A.ECC RAM, which stores extra check bits with each word so single-bit errors are corrected on the fly
    2. B.Non-ECC RAM with a higher clock speed, since faster modules finish transfers before any bit can flip
    3. C.A dual-channel non-ECC kit, because paired modules vote on every value and discard any mismatched bits
    4. D.SODIMM modules fitted with a desktop adapter, because the smaller cell layout prevents bit corruption
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: A — ECC RAM, which stores extra check bits with each word so single-bit errors are corrected on the fly

    • A. Correct. Error-correcting code memory keeps extra check bits per word, letting the memory controller correct single-bit errors and detect larger ones, which suits servers.
    • B. Incorrect. A faster clock does nothing to protect stored data; non-ECC memory has no check bits and silently passes along flipped bits.
    • C. Incorrect. Dual channel only widens the data path to raise bandwidth; the two modules do not compare or vote on each other's contents.
    • D. Incorrect. The SODIMM form factor only changes the physical size of the module and gives no protection against bit errors.

    Subdomain 3.3: Compare and contrast RAM characteristics.

    18.A technician has two identical 16 GB DDR4 DIMMs and a motherboard with four DIMM slots colored alternately black and gray. The user wants dual-channel operation. Where should the modules be installed?

    1. A.In any two slots, because the controller assigns each module a channel automatically by capacity
    2. B.In the two slots of the same color, so the channel pairing follows the layout in the manual
    3. C.In the two slots directly beside each other, which always places both modules on one shared channel
    4. D.In the first and last slots only, because the controller needs two empty slots between the modules
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: B — In the two slots of the same color, so the channel pairing follows the layout in the manual

    • A. Incorrect. Channel assignment is fixed by the slot wiring on the board and cannot be chosen by the controller based on module capacity.
    • B. Correct. Boards color-code the slots so that populating same-colored slots puts the two matched modules on different channels, enabling dual-channel mode.
    • C. Incorrect. Adjacent slots commonly belong to the same channel, so both modules would share one channel and run in single-channel mode.
    • D. Incorrect. The controller has no requirement for empty slots between modules; the slot positions only need to follow the channel pairing.

    Subdomain 3.5: Given a scenario, install and configure motherboards, central processing units (CPUs), and add-on cards.

    19.After a user installs a Linux distribution with an unsigned, custom bootloader, the PC refuses to start and shows a security violation message at power-on. Which UEFI setting is blocking the boot?

    1. A.Secure Boot, which checks bootloader signatures against trusted keys and refuses to run code that is unsigned.
    2. B.Wake-on-LAN, which powers the system on from network packets and rejects boot media lacking a valid MAC address.
    3. C.Fast Boot, which skips hardware checks at startup and refuses media that was not initialized during the last session.
    4. D.Boot order priority, which permanently locks the first listed device and blocks any other from loading an operating system.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: A — Secure Boot, which checks bootloader signatures against trusted keys and refuses to run code that is unsigned.

    • A. Secure Boot validates each bootloader's digital signature against keys stored in firmware, so a custom unsigned bootloader is rejected at startup.
    • B. Wake-on-LAN only lets network packets power on a sleeping system; it has no role in validating boot media or bootloaders.
    • C. Fast Boot shortens POST by skipping some hardware initialization, but it does not check signatures or deny unsigned operating systems.
    • D. Boot order only sets which device is tried first; a different device can still be selected, and the order does not verify code.

    Subdomain 3.5: Given a scenario, install and configure motherboards, central processing units (CPUs), and add-on cards.

    20.A user installs a new CPU cooler, but the system now throttles and shows 95 degrees Celsius under load in the UEFI hardware monitor. Which TWO actions are most likely to fix the problem?(Select 2)

    1. A.Peel the film off the cooler's cold plate and reseat the heat sink with a pea-sized dot of paste.
    2. B.Plug the cooler's fan cable into the CPU_FAN header so UEFI can monitor and raise its speed as heat rises.
    3. C.Spread a thick layer of thermal paste across the whole socket area and CPU edges to improve heat transfer.
    4. D.Disable the TPM in the UEFI security menu to reduce the processor's heat output during encryption work.
    5. E.Install a sound card in a free PCIe slot so audio processing moves off the CPU and lowers its load.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answers: A, B — Peel the film off the cooler's cold plate and reseat the heat sink with a pea-sized dot of paste.; Plug the cooler's fan cable into the CPU_FAN header so UEFI can monitor and raise its speed as heat rises.

    • A. Leftover protective film or a poor paste layer blocks contact between the CPU and heat sink, so removing it and reseating with proper paste fixes heat transfer.
    • B. A cooler fan connected to the CPU_FAN header is monitored and controlled by UEFI, so it speeds up with temperature instead of idling or stopping.
    • C. Too much paste acts as an insulator and can spill onto the socket, so a thick layer makes cooling worse and risks electrical problems.
    • D. The TPM generates almost no heat and disabling it does not lower CPU temperatures; it would only remove a security feature.
    • E. Modern audio work is trivial and a sound card does not meaningfully reduce CPU load, so it does nothing for cooling.

    Subdomain 3.6: Given a scenario, install the appropriate power supply.

    21.Which input voltage range is the standard mains supply in most European countries?

    1. A.90–100 VAC
    2. B.110–120 VAC
    3. C.220–240 VAC
    4. D.277–480 VAC
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: C — 220–240 VAC

    • A. Incorrect. A 90–100 VAC range is below any common mains standard and is not what European outlets deliver.
    • B. Incorrect. 110–120 VAC is the standard in North America and is the lower setting on a power supply's voltage switch.
    • C. Correct. Most of Europe supplies 220–240 VAC, which corresponds to the 230V position on a switchable PC power supply.
    • D. Incorrect. 277–480 VAC is a commercial and industrial three-phase range and is not delivered to standard PC power supplies.

    Subdomain 3.7: Given a scenario, deploy and configure multifunction devices/printers and settings.

    22.An accountant wants scanned invoices from the multifunction device to be saved directly into a shared folder on the company file server. Which scan service should be configured?

    1. A.Scan to email, which sends each page to a mailbox over an SMTP relay.
    2. B.Scan to an SMB share, which saves the file to a network folder path.
    3. C.Scan to cloud, which uploads each file to an online storage account.
    4. D.Scan to USB, which writes each file to a drive plugged into the front panel.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: B — Scan to an SMB share, which saves the file to a network folder path.

    • A. Incorrect: scan to email delivers files as attachments through SMTP rather than saving them into a server folder.
    • B. Correct: SMB lets the device write files to a shared folder on a file server using a network path and credentials.
    • C. Incorrect: scan to cloud sends files to an online storage provider and does not use the company's local file server.
    • D. Incorrect: scan to USB saves to a drive attached to the device, and it does not reach the network share.

    Subdomain 3.8: Given a scenario, perform appropriate printer maintenance.

    23.A cashier reports that receipts from a thermal printer are printing with faint vertical white lines. The paper roll is new and correctly loaded. What is the best maintenance step?

    1. A.Replace the toner cartridge and clean the imaging drum so that the heat roller stops leaving white gaps
    2. B.Power off, let the printer cool, and wipe the heating element with an isopropyl alcohol swab
    3. C.Run an alignment page from the printer utility and recalibrate the nozzles so the lines print evenly
    4. D.Replace the ribbon and lubricate the printhead pins so that the receipt text strikes the paper again
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: B — Power off, let the printer cool, and wipe the heating element with an isopropyl alcohol swab

    • A. Thermal printers do not use toner or an imaging drum, so these parts do not exist in the printer. White lines come from residue on the heating element.
    • B. Vertical white lines on thermal output usually mean dust or adhesive residue on the heating element. Letting the printhead cool first, then cleaning with isopropyl alcohol, removes it safely.
    • C. Nozzle alignment applies to inkjet printers that spray ink. A thermal printer has no nozzles, so this routine would not remove residue from the heating element.
    • D. Ribbons and printhead pins belong to impact printers. A thermal printer burns an image into heat-sensitive paper without any ribbon or pins.

    Domain 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing

    Subdomain 4.1: Explain virtualization concepts.

    24.A company wants employees to sign in from thin clients or home PCs and get the same personal desktop, with every desktop running on servers in the datacenter. Which technology matches?

    1. A.Application containers installed on each thin client, with local storage holding every user's desktop settings
    2. B.Virtual Desktop Infrastructure, which runs each user's desktop as a VM on a central datacenter server
    3. C.A Type 2 hypervisor on every home PC, with each employee building and maintaining a personal Windows guest
    4. D.Cloud file synchronization that copies each user's documents to a local folder on whatever device they sign in from
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: B — Virtual Desktop Infrastructure, which runs each user's desktop as a VM on a central datacenter server

    • A. Containers package individual applications rather than delivering a full user desktop. Thin clients also lack the local resources to run them.
    • B. VDI runs desktops as VMs in the datacenter and streams them to any capable client. Users get a consistent desktop, and IT manages everything centrally.
    • C. This pushes the work and maintenance onto each employee's own hardware. The desktops would run locally rather than on datacenter servers.
    • D. File sync copies documents, not a running desktop environment. The sign-in device still supplies the operating system and applications.

    Subdomain 4.1: Explain virtualization concepts.

    25.Which TWO statements about Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) are correct?(Select 2)

    1. A.User desktops run as VMs on central servers and are accessed over the network from a client device
    2. B.Each desktop runs on the local CPU of the user's own computer, using that computer's installed applications
    3. C.Administrators can patch or replace a shared desktop image centrally instead of visiting each endpoint
    4. D.A Type 2 hypervisor must be installed on every client so that it can display the remote desktop
    5. E.VDI works without any network connection, so users keep their desktops while fully offline
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answers: A, C — User desktops run as VMs on central servers and are accessed over the network from a client device; Administrators can patch or replace a shared desktop image centrally instead of visiting each endpoint

    • A. VDI hosts desktops on servers and sends the display to users. The client device mainly provides screen, keyboard, and mouse.
    • B. Running on the user's local CPU describes a local installation or client-side VM. VDI moves that workload to the servers.
    • C. A central image makes patching and rebuilding simple for administrators. This is a primary management advantage of VDI.
    • D. VDI clients need only a remote display client or thin client. Hypervisors run on the datacenter servers instead.
    • E. VDI depends on a network connection to reach the servers. With no connection, users cannot reach their desktops.

    Subdomain 4.2: Summarize cloud computing concepts.

    26.A small design firm pays for virtual servers on a cloud platform. The invoice shows that the firm's servers run on a physical host shared with other customers, which keeps the monthly cost low. Which characteristic does this describe?

    1. A.File synchronization, because each virtual server keeps its stored data matched across several devices
    2. B.Dedicated resources, because the firm's virtual servers are reserved for its exclusive use only
    3. C.Shared resources, because physical hardware is pooled across several customers' workloads
    4. D.Metered utilization, because each virtual server is billed at a flat monthly rate regardless of usage
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: C — Shared resources, because physical hardware is pooled across several customers' workloads

    • A. File synchronization keeps copies of files consistent across devices and has nothing to do with hosts being shared by customers.
    • B. Dedicated resources reserve hardware for one customer, which usually raises cost, and would not be shared with other customers.
    • C. Shared resources pool physical capacity among customers, lowering cost but allowing neighbors to affect performance.
    • D. Metered utilization bills according to measured consumption, so a flat fee irrespective of usage is not metering.

    Domain 5: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    Subdomain 5.1: Given a scenario, troubleshoot motherboards, RAM, CPUs, and power.

    27.A technician powers on a desktop and hears a repeating pattern of beeps, but nothing appears on the display. What should the technician do to interpret the beeps?

    1. A.Look up the beep pattern in the motherboard manual for its BIOS vendor, since beep codes differ between manufacturers.
    2. B.Apply the standard universal beep chart that every BIOS vendor follows, then replace the component named by that chart.
    3. C.Ignore the beeps and boot into Safe Mode, because audible codes only report software faults inside the operating system.
    4. D.Count the beeps and swap the power supply, since each repeated beep pattern always signals a failed power supply unit.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: A — Look up the beep pattern in the motherboard manual for its BIOS vendor, since beep codes differ between manufacturers.

    • A. Correct. POST beep codes are defined by the BIOS/UEFI vendor (AMI, Award, Phoenix and others), so the motherboard documentation is the authoritative way to decode the pattern.
    • B. Incorrect. There is no single universal beep chart; the same pattern can mean different faults on different BIOS vendors, so applying one chart can point at the wrong component.
    • C. Incorrect. Beeps are produced by the power-on self-test before any operating system loads, so Safe Mode is unreachable and irrelevant to these hardware codes.
    • D. Incorrect. A failed power supply usually produces no beeps at all, and beep patterns map to RAM, video or CPU faults, not automatically to the PSU.

    Subdomain 5.1: Given a scenario, troubleshoot motherboards, RAM, CPUs, and power.

    28.A desktop's fans and LEDs power up, but the monitor, which works on another computer, stays blank, and the case has no speaker to give beep codes. Which tool would best show how far the startup process progressed?

    1. A.A POST diagnostic card installed in an expansion slot that displays hexadecimal progress codes during startup.
    2. B.A loopback plug connected to the network port that returns sent signals to confirm the NIC card functions properly.
    3. C.A cable tester attached to the video cable that reports pin continuity between the two connector ends.
    4. D.A toner probe held near the motherboard that emits a tone when it finds an active signal on a trace.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: A — A POST diagnostic card installed in an expansion slot that displays hexadecimal progress codes during startup.

    • A. Correct. A POST card reads the codes the BIOS emits during startup and shows the last completed stage, which locates the failing component when there is no display or speaker.
    • B. Incorrect. A loopback plug tests network port transmit and receive paths only, and the NIC has no role in a system that stalls before displaying anything.
    • C. Incorrect. A cable tester checks cable continuity, but the monitor already works elsewhere, so the cable is not the question and it cannot report startup progress.
    • D. Incorrect. A tone probe traces cable runs in a network wiring closet; it cannot interpret firmware startup stages on a motherboard.

    Subdomain 5.3: Given a scenario, troubleshoot video, projector, and display issues.

    29.A projected image looks like a trapezoid, with the top edge wider than the bottom edge. The projector sits on a low cart and tilts upward toward the screen. Which adjustment should the technician make?

    1. A.Replace the lamp, because a trapezoid shape is a typical sign of an aging bulb that is not lighting evenly
    2. B.Increase the volume setting, because a distorted shape on screen is caused by a weak audio signal on the cable
    3. C.Apply keystone correction or level the projector, because angled placement creates a trapezoid picture
    4. D.Update the BIOS on the laptop, because a firmware mismatch is the common cause of an angled projected picture
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: C — Apply keystone correction or level the projector, because angled placement creates a trapezoid picture

    • A. An aging lamp affects brightness or color, not the geometry of the picture. A trapezoid shape does not mean the bulb is worn.
    • B. Audio volume and picture geometry are unrelated functions. A weak audio signal cannot change the shape of the video image.
    • C. Correct. A trapezoid is keystone distortion caused by the projector not being perpendicular to the screen. Leveling the projector or using keystone correction squares the image.
    • D. A BIOS update does not control how the projector's lens throws the image. The distortion comes from placement angle.

    Subdomain 5.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot drive and RAID issues.

    30.A technician finds a mechanical hard drive that is 97% full and heavily fragmented. S.M.A.R.T. reports healthy, yet opening files and copying data takes several minutes. What is the best remedy?

    1. A.Free up disk space, then run the Optimize Drives defragmentation tool on the mechanical drive.
    2. B.Convert the disk from MBR to GPT so that the controller can address its sectors more quickly.
    3. C.Disable S.M.A.R.T. monitoring in the BIOS to remove its constant background reads of the drive.
    4. D.Replace the SATA cable with a longer shielded cable to raise the data transfer rate of the link.
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: A — Free up disk space, then run the Optimize Drives defragmentation tool on the mechanical drive.

    • A. Correct. A nearly full, fragmented HDD forces the heads to seek across many locations, so freeing space and defragmenting restores sequential reads and shorter access times.
    • B. Incorrect. Partition style affects maximum disk size and boot mode, not how quickly the heads reach fragmented data.
    • C. Incorrect. S.M.A.R.T. polling uses very little I/O, and turning it off removes failure warnings without improving speed.
    • D. Incorrect. SATA link speed is not the limit here, and a longer cable does not raise transfer rates or fix fragmentation.

    Subdomain 5.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot network issues.

    31.A user complains that every page loads slowly, though the speed test shows plenty of bandwidth. A ping to the company web server returns replies in about 600 ms. Which command should the technician run next to see where the delay is introduced along the path?

    1. A.netstat -a to list every listening port on this workstation and its owning process
    2. B.ipconfig /release then /renew to request a new lease from the DHCP server again
    3. C.nslookup against the server's hostname to display the DNS record's time-to-live
    4. D.tracert to the web server address, then compare the times at every hop
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: D — tracert to the web server address, then compare the times at every hop

    • A. Incorrect. Netstat shows local connections and listening ports, which tells nothing about the delay between hops on the way to the server.
    • B. Incorrect. Releasing and renewing the lease only refreshes addressing. It does not show where along the route the delay is occurring.
    • C. Incorrect. Nslookup checks name resolution and TTL values, which would not explain a high round-trip time to an address that already responds to ping.
    • D. Correct. Tracert lists each router hop with its round-trip time, so a sudden jump in latency reveals which segment of the path is slow.

    Subdomain 5.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot network issues.

    32.Which symptom is the clearest sign of high latency rather than low bandwidth?

    1. A.A download that starts quickly but reports a transfer rate far below the plan's rated capacity
    2. B.A computer that receives an address starting with 169.254 whenever it joins the network
    3. C.A large delay between sending a request and receiving the first reply, even for tiny packets
    4. D.A wireless client that cannot see the network name in the list of available networks
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: C — A large delay between sending a request and receiving the first reply, even for tiny packets

    • A. Incorrect. A low transfer rate compared with the rated plan describes limited throughput or bandwidth rather than delay in each round trip.
    • B. Incorrect. A 169.254 address means DHCP failed, which is an addressing problem and not a delay measurement.
    • C. Correct. Latency is the round-trip delay for a packet, so slow replies even to tiny requests such as ping point to latency instead of limited capacity.
    • D. Incorrect. A missing network name suggests the SSID is hidden or out of range, which is a visibility issue and not a latency symptom.

    Subdomain 5.6: Given a scenario, troubleshoot printer issues.

    33.The paper tray on an office printer is full and the printer's motor can be heard turning, but no sheet moves into the printer and no jam is reported. Which component is the most likely culprit?

    1. A.A depleted toner cartridge that signals the feed motor to wait until fresh toner is detected
    2. B.A corrupted spooler file that tells the printer that the tray is empty even when it contains paper
    3. C.A glazed or worn pickup roller that can no longer grip the top sheet and pull it from the tray
    4. D.A failing fuser assembly that stops sheets from leaving the tray until it reaches operating temperature
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: C — A glazed or worn pickup roller that can no longer grip the top sheet and pull it from the tray

    • A. Incorrect because low toner only reduces print density; the printer still pulls paper from the tray.
    • B. Incorrect because a spooler problem would prevent jobs from reaching the printer rather than leave the motor turning with no paper movement.
    • C. Correct because a pickup roller that has worn smooth or glazed spins without gripping, so paper stays in the tray; cleaning or replacing it restores feeding.
    • D. Incorrect because the fuser warms up before printing but does not control whether a sheet is picked from the tray.

    Subdomain 5.4: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common mobile device issues.

    34.A three-year-old smartphone drops from 100% to 15% after about two hours of light use. The battery health screen reports a maximum capacity of 68%. Which action is the most appropriate fix?

    1. A.Perform a factory reset and restore from backup, because stored app settings are what lowered the maximum capacity
    2. B.Install a task-killer app that closes every background process each minute to raise capacity back above 90%
    3. C.Fully discharge the battery to zero percent three times so the reported capacity recalibrates itself to full
    4. D.Replace the worn battery with a new one, since chemical aging has permanently reduced the cell's capacity
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: D — Replace the worn battery with a new one, since chemical aging has permanently reduced the cell's capacity

    • A. A factory reset clears software clutter but cannot restore chemical capacity. The reported 68% reflects physical aging of the cell.
    • B. Closing background apps can reduce drain but does not change the cell's maximum capacity, and constant relaunching often wastes more power.
    • C. Deep discharge cycles do not restore a worn lithium-ion cell and can stress it further. The capacity figure is accurate, not a calibration error.
    • D. Lithium-ion cells lose capacity with charge cycles and age. Once health is this low, replacing the battery is the correct repair.

    Subdomain 5.4: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common mobile device issues.

    35.After a phone is dropped, the display shows a sharp, undamaged image, but the bottom third of the screen ignores all touches while the rest responds normally. What is the most likely cause?

    1. A.The digitizer layer is damaged, so touch in that area goes undetected even though the display panel still works
    2. B.The LCD backlight has failed in that region, so the lower screen area cannot show images and cannot accept any input
    3. C.The phone's GPS receiver is faulty, so location services block touch events in the lower region of the display
    4. D.A corrupted keyboard dictionary is intercepting taps near the bottom of the screen until the cache is cleared
    Show answer & explanation

    Correct answer: A — The digitizer layer is damaged, so touch in that area goes undetected even though the display panel still works

    • A. The digitizer senses touch separately from the panel that produces the image. A sharp picture with dead touch zones points to digitizer damage.
    • B. A failed backlight would dim or darken the image, but the picture here is sharp and complete. The fault is in touch detection, not illumination.
    • C. GPS provides positioning data and has no control over touch input. A GPS fault would not create a dead zone on the screen.
    • D. A keyboard dictionary affects text suggestions only, and the dead zone persists in every app after a physical drop, which indicates hardware.

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